/u/[deleted]'s posts in /r/AskHistorians
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Why did so many ancient civilizations seem to exclusively stick to their individual unique art styles?
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I am a Sanskrit speaker in five-rivers area in northwestern Indian subcontinent around 500 BCE. Which areas of Indian subcontinent and Iran speak a language legible to me?
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How difficult would it be for a non-racist white person in the late 1800s to get genuine friends that were african-american?
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